So, if according to the
Supreme Court a direct income tax was unconstitutional before
the 16th Amendment (Pollock),
and
No new powers of taxation were
created or
conferred by the adoption of the Amendment (Stanton), then
HOW CAN A DIRECT TAX ON INCOME BE CONSTITUTIONAL AFTER THE 16th Amendment ?
(Clearly, honestly, it cant be !)
HOW CAN A DIRECT TAX ON INCOME BE CONSTITUTIONAL AFTER THE 16th Amendment ?
(Clearly, honestly, it cant be !)
